Answers

Instrument Rating Oral Test Study Guide


I.   FAR Part 1

1.   Define Air Traffic Clearance.

2.   Define Air Traffic Control.

3.   Define Alternate Airport.

4.   Define Decision Height.

5.   Define Flight Visibility.

6.   Define Ground Visibility.

7.   Define IFR Conditions.

8.   Define MDA.

9.   Define Special VFR Conditions.

10.  Define Special VFR Operations.


II.  Part 61

11.  What time may a pilot log as instrument flight time

12.  Explain recant IFR experience.

13.  Who can give an instrument proficiency check?

14.  When is an instrument proficiency check needed?

15.  What cross country requirements are needed for an instrument rating?

16.  What documents must you have in your possession to be legal to fly IFR?

17.  What documents must the aircraft have to be legal to be flown IFR?

18.  What flight time must he entered in the pilots logbook?

19.  What are the requirements to obtain an instrument rating?



III. Part 91

20.  Who has the final authority for the operation of an aircraft?

21.  In case of an emergency, may you deviate from the FARS?  To what 
     extent?

22.  Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft in an airworthy
     condition?

21.  What is stated concerning the operation of portable electronic devices
     on an aircraft during IFR flight?  What are the exceptions?

22.  What are the right-of-way rules when flying IFR?

23.  What is the max airspeed below 10000 feet MSL?

24.  How fast can you fly inside class B, C, and D airspace?

25.  What altimeter setting would you use when flying cross country IFR
     below 18,000 feet?  Above 18,000 feet?

26.  What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight?

27.  What information must be included in an IFR flight plan?

28.  How often must your VOR equipment be checked?

29.  What are the allowable errors?

30.  What information must be entered in the logs for a VOR check?

31.  What two things are necessary to operate an aircraft in controlled
     airspace under IFR?

32.  When may you descend below published MDA or DH while on an instrument
     approach?

33.  What requirement must be met to land an aircraft after descending below
     MDA or DH?

34.  What are the minimum altitudes for IFR flight when not on an airway?

35.  What are the appropriate flight altitudes for IFR flight with a
     magnetic course between 0 and 179 degrees?

36.  In VFR conditions on an IFR flight plan, you lose two way radio
     communications.  What should you do?

37.  What malfunction reports are required when flying IFR in controlled
     airspace?

38.  What equipment and instruments are required for IFR flight?

39.  When must the batteries be replaced in the ELT?

40.  Who is required to use oxygen at 14,500 feet?

41.  Who is required to use oxygen at FL200?

42.  When are you required to use a transponder with Mode C? How often must
     it be tested?

43.  What other systems must be tested for IFR flight?  How often?


IV.   AIM

44.  What four phenomenon interfere with an NDB signal?

45.  Why should a pilot continuously nonitor an NDB identification while
     using it?

46.  What restriction does a VOR have?

47.  What accuracy does a VOR have?

48.  Can engine RPM render a VOR inaccurate?  If so, why?

49.  What three services does a VORTAC provide?

50.  How far out can a DME signal be reliably received?

51.  Does DME provide actual horizontal distance or slant range?

52.  How often is a DME identifier broadcast?

53.  Draw a standard VOR high altitude service volume.

54.  Draw a standard VOR low altitude service volume.

55.  Draw a standard VOR terminal service volume.

56.  List three functions of an ILS system.

57.  What substitutions may be made for the Outer Marker?

58.  How wide is the typical localizer?

59.  What always proceeds a localizer's identification when used with an
     ILS?

60.  How far out is a localizer considered reliable?

61.  How far out is a glideslope considered reliable. 

62.  What is an LDA?

63.  What is an SDF?

64.  How wide is a glide slope?

65.  What is a standard glide path in degrees?

66.  What does TCH stand for?

67.  At what altitude will an aircraft commonly cross the middle marker on
     glide slope?

68.  What happens to an ILS if the glide slope fails?

69.  What happens to an ILS if the localizer falls?

70.  Draw the symbol for an ILS critical area.

71.  What are the colors for the marker beacons?

72.  What happens if a navaid does not produce an identifier?

73.  Why is it important to identify navaids in use?

74.  What is an ASR?

75.  What is a PAR?

76.  Draw where REIL would be located on a runway.

77.  What is the night time range of VASI?

78.  For what reasons would an airport rotating beacon be on?

79.  What color is a holding position sign?

80.  What airspaces are controlled?

81.  What are IFR requirements for controlled airspace?

82.  What type of IFR separation do you get in controlled airspace?

83.  What are the requirements (aircraft/pilot) to fly in Class A airspace?

84.  When is DME required?

85.  What equipment is required for IFR flight in Class B airspace?

86.  When is a transponder required for Class B area flight?  Class C area
     flight?

87.  When is an instrument clearance needed for Class E flight?

88.  When is an instrument clearance needed for Class G flight?

89.  A pilot is flying IFR on a victor airway that penetrates a restricted 
area.  Does the pilot need to request a clearance through the restricted
area?

90.  What is the purpose of a MOA?

91.  What main information is a pilot flying looking for when listening to
     ATIS / AW0S?

92.  Below what altitude should the Tower Enroute Control Program be used?

93.  What does a pilot do when ATC says "squawk altitude"?

94.  Why would ATC issue this clearance:  "stop altitude squawk"?

95.  Where is a transponder required?

96.  What should a pilot do when ATC issues "squak VFR"?

97.  What information should he presented on initial contact with ATC?

98.  A pilot has lost radio communications and needs to enter Class D
     airspace at APA.  What is the procedure?

99.  Once on downwind, the pilot sees a steady red light emitting from the
     tower.  What does he do?

100. The pilot, after he lands, sees a flashing red light emitting from the
     tower.  What does he do?

101. When are anticollision lights and position lights required?

102. Whhat does "Cleared for the option" mean?

103. Why would ATC deny a practice approach?

104. Pilots not on an IFR flight plan desiring practice instrument
     approaches should always state what word in their request?

105. What is the difference between a vectored approach and a full    
     approach?

106. Can a FSS facility approve/disapprove a pilots request for practice
     approach?

107. What six items are found in an ATC clearance?

108. What mnemonic is used for an ATC clearance?

109. What does "cruise 5000" mean?

110. How many minutes before reaching a holding fix should the pilot slow
     the aircraft down to holding speed?

111. What is the maximum holding speed?

112. When is a special VFR clearance needed?

113. What requirements are needed for a special VFR clearance during the
     day?  Night?

114. When receiving a clearance, what responsibility does the pilot have?

115. If the pilot is cleared in flight direct to an NDB and the pilot is not
     receiving the NDB identification nor a strong signal, what should he
     do?

116. How much time should be allowed between filing and activating a flight
     plan?

117. What suffix should be used for a DME and transponder (mode C)    
     equipped aircraft when filing IFR?

116. What point should he included in the route section of the flight plan.

119. Where can preferred routes be found?

120. How can a pilot avoid a SID or STAR?

121. What is the pilots responsibility when filing an IFR direct route?

122. On a flight plan, is your estimated time enroute based on a no wind or
     forecast wind situation?

123. When will ATC drop your unactivated flight plan?

124. When at an uncontrolled field, how do you close your IFR flight plan?

125. At a tower controlled field, how do you close your IFR flight plan?

126. How long does a pilot have to close an IFR flight plan before search
     and rescue is initiated?

127. At a controlled field, how does a pilot open an IFR flight plan?

128. At an uncontrolled field, how does a pilot open an IFR flight plan?

129. How does a pilot open an IFR flight plan when airborne?

130. What is a clearance void time?

131. When a clearance void time expires, what is the pilot's responsibility
     if not airborne?

132. What is minimum climb gradient?

133. What is the lowest possible climb gradient for IFR?

134. When contacting an ARTCC, what information should be provided?

135. What should a pilot do when he's cleared to contact another ARTCC
     sector and no one responds on the new frequency?

136. Draw the symbol for a change over point.

137. If a change over point does not exist, where should the pilot switch to
     a new navaid?

138. How many minutes before a pilot reaches a holding fix should ATC issue
     holding instructions?

139. When should a pilot start timing outbound in an NDB hold?  VOR hold?

140. What is the direction of turns in a standard hold?

141. What is a standard rate turn in degrees per second?

142. If the turn coordinator fails, what is the rule of thumb for a standard
     rate turn?

143. What is maximum degrees bank for a standard rate turn?

144. On an IFR cross country, how can a pilot determine what approach is in
     use at his destination?

145. What is an MSA used for?

146. What is an MVA used for?

147. What is a VDP depicted for?

146. What symbol defines a VDP?

149. What defines category A,D,C,D,E approach minimums?

150. At what point of any instrurpent approach is the pilot considered
     established?

151. What would the pilot do if he received this clearance: "cleared
     approach"?

152. The procedure turn is a required maneuver except when what five  
     exceptions exist.

153. The pilot may execute any type of a course reversal for procedure turn
     except when what condition exists?

154. A procedure turn needs to be accomplished how many miles from the
     center of the approach?

155. When should a pilot execute the side step in a side step approach?

156. When are straight in minimums published?

157. When should a pilot descend below circling maneuver minimums?

158. When and where does a pilot execute a missed approach?

159. if a pilot is circling to land from an approach and is unable to
     maintain VFR, what actions should he take?

160. Does a pilot request a visual or contact approach?

161. Does ATC assign a contact or visual approach?

162. What are the minimums for a contact approach?

163. If a radio communication failure happens during flight, what route
     should the pilot fly?  What altitude?

164. If a pilot's radio fails, what possible way could he monitor ATC?

165. If a pilot flies into icing conditions, what actions should he take and
     what equipment should he use?

166. Describe the difference between anti-ice and de-ice equipment.  Give
     examples.

167. At what airspeed should a pilot fly if encountering icing?

168. What is the furthest station you should be setting your altimeter to?

169. What does a controller mean when he says "the jet above you is
     restricted to 4000 feet"?

170. What does approach mean when they say "maintain 3000 feet until
     established on the localizer"?

171. What does approach mean when they say "maintain 3000 feet until
     established on any part of the published approach procedure"?

172. What does ATC mean when they say "maintain 090 until direct Tulsa?"

173. When should a pilot report "direct"?

174. What does "pilot discretion" mean?

175. What does "resume own navigation mean?

176. At what point can a turn be initiated on a missed approach?


V.    APPROACH PLATES

177. How much RVR is 1/2 mile?

178. What are the standard takeoff minimums?

179. What are part 135 standard takeoff minimums?

180. Where can departure procedures be found?

181. What is the standard rate of descent (3 degree glide slope) for 90 kts?


VI.  PITOT STATIC

182. Draw a standard pitot static system.

183. What happens when the pitot tube freezes, drain hole open?

184. What happens when the pitot tube and the drain hole freeze?

185. What happens when the pitot tuba, drain hole and static ports freeze?

186. What happens when just the static ports freeze?

187. What actions should be initiated when the static ports freeze?

188. What errors do you have if you use alternate static air?


VII. VACUUM SYSTEM

189. What instruments operate from the vacuum system?

190. What is the maximum allowable precession for the DG?

191. What is the maximum allowable error for the attitude indicator?



VIII. COMPASS

192. What five errors exist in the compass?

193. What type of fluid is in the compass?


IX.  LOW ENROUTE NAVIGATION

194. When may a pilot descend to the MOCA?

195. What does the MOCA guarantee?

196. What does the MEA guarantee?

197. Define MRA, MCA, and MAA?

196. Why would an MAA be assigned?

199. What are the eight components of a position report?

Answers


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Last modified 09/19/02.